Class 7

Haryana State Board HBSE 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

HBSE 7th Class Science Fibre to Fabric Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
You must be familiar with the following nursery rhymes:
(i) Baa baa black sheep, have you any wool
(ii) Mary had a little lamb, whose fleece was white as snow
Answer the following:
(a) Which parts of the black sheep have wool?
(b) What is meant by the white fleece of the lamb?
Answer:
(a) The Hair (fleece) of the black sheep have wool.
(b) The white fleece is the v/hite hair of the lamb.

Question 2.
The silkworm is (a) a caterpiller, (b) a Larva. Choose the correct option.
(i) a
(ii) b
(iii) both a and b
(iv) neither a nor b.
Answer:
(iii) both a and b.

Question 3.
Which of the following does not yield wool?
(i) Yak
(ii) Camel
(iii) Goat
(iv) Woolly dog.
Answer:
(iv) Woolly Dog.

Question 4.
What is meant by the following terms?
(i) Reasing
(ii) Shearing
(iii) Sericulture
Answer:
(i) The fleece of the sheep alongwith a thin layer of skin is removed from its body. This process is called shearing.
(ii) Silk fibres are also animal fibres. Silkworms spin the ‘silk fibres’.
(iii) The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called sericulture.

Question 5.
Given below is a sequence of steps in the processing of wool. Which are the missing steps? Add them.
Shearing, ………………. , sorting, ………………. , ………………. , ………………. , ………………. .
Answer:
Shearing, scouring, sorting, drying, dying, spinning, weaving.

Question 6.
Make sketches of the two stages in the life history of the silk moth which are directly related to the production of silk.
Answer:

(a) Female silkworm moth with eggs

Question 7.
Out of the following, which are the two terms related to silk production? Sericulture, Floriculture, Moriculture, Apiculture, Silviculture
Hints:
(i) Silk production involves cultivation of mulberry leaves and rearing silkworms.
(ii) Scientific name of mulberry is Morus alba.
Answer:
Sericulture, Moriculture.

Question 8.
Match the words of column I with those given in column II.

Column I	Column II
1. Scouring	(a) Yields silk fibres
2. Mulberry leaves	(b) Wool yielding animal
3. Yak	(c) Food of silk worm
4. Cocoon	(d) Reeling
	(e) Cleaning sheared skin

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Scouring	(e) Cleaning sheared skin
2. Mulberry leaves	(c) Food of silk worm
3. Yak	(b) Wool yielding animal
4. Cocoon	(a) Yields silk fibres

Question 9.
Given below is a crossword puzzle based on this lesson. Use hints to fill in the blank spaces with letters that complete the words.

Answer:

Extended Learning-Activities And Projects

Question 1.
Paheli wants to know the maximum length of continuous silk thread that can be obtained from a cocoon.
Answer:
Do yourself. Take help to your teacher.

Question 2.
Boojho wants to know why caterpillars need to shed their skin when they grow bigger but we humans do not.
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 3.
Boojho wants to know why caterpillars should not be collected with bare hands.
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 4.
Paheli wanted to buy a silk frock and went to the market with her mother. There they found that the artificial (synthetic) silk was much cheaper and wanted to know why Do you know why? Find out.
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 5.
Someone told Paheli that an animal called ‘Vicuna’ also gives wooljl Can you tell her where this animal is found? Look for this in a dictionary or an encyclopaedia.
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 6.
When handloom and textile exhibitions are held, certain stalls display real moths of various varieties of silk and their life histories. Try and visit these stalls with elders or teachers and see these moths and stages of their life history.
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 7.
Look for eggs of any moth or butterfly in your garden or park or any other place full of plants. They look like tiny specks (dots) laid in a cluster on the leaves. Pull out the leaves containing eggs and-place them in a cardboard box. Take some leaves of the same plant or another plant of the same variety, chop them and put them in the box. Eggs will hatch into caterpillars, which are busy eating day and night. Add leaves everyday for them to feed upon. Sometimes you may be able to collect the caterpillars. But be careful. Use a paper napkin or a paper to hold a caterpillar.
Observe everyday. Note the
(i) number of days taken for eggs to hatch
(ii) number of days taken to reach the cocoon stage and
(iii) to complete life cycle. Record your observations in your notebook.
Answer:
Do yourself.

HBSE 7th Class Science Fibre to Fabric Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the sources of obtaining fibres.
Answer:
The sources of obtaining fibres are plants and animals.

Question 2.
Name some wool yielding animals.
Answer:
Some wool yielding animals are: sheep, angora goat, goat, yak, camel, llama, alpaca.

Question 3.
What is shearing?
Answer:
The fleece (hair) of the sheep alongwith a thin layer of skin is removed from its body. This process is called shearing.

Question 4.
From where do we get wool and silk fibres?
Answer:
Wool and silk fibres are obtained from animals. Wool is obtained from hair of animals ; as sheep hairs and silk fibtes are obtained from silk worm.

Question 5.
What is wool?
Answer:
Wool is the common name of applied to soft curly fibres obtained chiefly from the fleece of domesticated sheep.

Question 6.
What determines the fineness of wool?
Answer:
The number of crimps per centimetre determines the fineness of wool fibre.

Question 7.
Name two breeds of sheep which has finest fleece?
Answer:
Two breeds of sheep which has finest fleece are: merino and Karakul.

Question 8.
Name two systems used in the processing of wool.
Answer:
Two system used in the processing of wool are:
1. Woollen system
2. Worsted system.

Question 9.
Name two substance removed from row wool, before manufacturing yam.
Answer:
Two substance removed from raw wool, before manufacturing yarn are:
1. Yolk
2. Suint.

Question 10.
What is woolmark?
Answer:
Woolmark is the mark of standardisation given to woollen yarns and woollen products. This mark has been instituted by International Wool Secretariat (I.W.S.) located in North Yorkshire (U.K.).

Question 11.
What are the uses of wool?
Answer:
Wool is used for making fabrics, shawls, blankets, carpets, felt and upholstery.

Question 12.
Write the properties of wool fibre.
Answer:
Wool fibre is considerably resilient, has high tensile strength, light weight and is heat insulator.

Question 13.
Name the domesticated moth whose larva produces silk.
Answer:
Silk is obtained from the cocoon of the pupa of mulberry silk moth.

Question 14.
Name the plant on which silk larva feeds.
Answer:
Silk larva feeds on the leaves of mulberry tree.

Question 15.
Name the person responsible for the discovery of silk.
Answer:
Silk was discovered by Xi-Ling-Shi, the bride of Chinese emperor Huang Di, in about 3000 B.C.

Question 16.
Name the strongest variety of silk.State whether the variety you have named is wild silk or domesticated silk.
Answer:
The strongest variety of silk is “Muga”. It is the variety of wild silk.

Question 17.
Name the different varieties of processed silk.
Answer:
Organize, Gepe, Tram and Thrown Singles are different, varieties of processed silk.

Question 18.
Give uses of silk, other than for making dresses.
Answer:
Other than for making dresses, silk is used for items such as parachutes, bicycle tyres, bullet proof vests and non-absorbable sutures in surgery.

Question 19.
What is sericulture?
Answer:
The science of raising silkworms, so as to obtain silk cocoons, is called sericulture.

Question 20.
Where are sheep reared in India?
Answer:
In India sheep are reared in Sub-Himalyan region which has a cooler climate.

Question 21.
Differentiate between staple fibres and filament fibres.
Answer:
The fibres like cotton, jute, and wool are short in length. Silk however, is the longest natural fibre. The short fibres are known as the stable fibres, where as long fibres are known as the filament fibres.

Question 22.
Name some Indian breeds of sheep.
Answer:
Some Indian breeds of sheep are Lohi, Rampur bushair, Nali, Bakharwal, Marwari, and Patanwadi.

Question 23.
What is reeling of silk?
Answer:
A pile of cocoons is used for obtaining silk fibres. This process is called reeling of silk.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between woollen yarn and worsted yam.
Answer:
The woolen yarn is made from the woolen fibres of mixed lenghts. These fibres are, carded and spun to form a woolen yarn. The articles made from this yarn do not have smooth finished surface.

In the worsted yarn, only the long fibres are used. They are formed into smooth compact strands and are then spun to form woolen yarn. The articles made from these have smooth finished surface.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the term ‘weighting of sillf’?
Answer:
Silk when unwound from the cocoon is covered with a sticky substance. This has to be removed by washing process. As a result, silk loses about 20% of its weight. To make up for this loss some manufactures dip silk in metallic salt solution. This is known as weighting of the silk. This silk is weaker than pure silk. It than not be cleaned properly. This silk is of substandard quality and hence, deceives the buyers.

Question 3.
What is raw silk? How is it produced?
Answer:
After brushing, filaments from four to eight cocoons are joined and twisted. They are then combined with a number of other similarly twisted filaments, to make a thread that is wound on a reel. The thread is called raw silk.

It usually consists of 48 individual silk fibres. When each cocoon is unwound, it is replaced by another cocoon.Unlike the threads spun from other natural fibres, such as cotton or wool, the silk thread is made of extremely long fibres.

Question 4.
Name and describe any two types of silk threads used in the making of silk cloth.
Answer:
Two types of silk threads used in the making of silk cloth are:
1. Organzine:
Organzine thread is made by giving raw silk thread a preliminary twist in one direction and then twisting two or more of these threads in the opposite direction at rate of about 4 turns / cm.
2. Crepe: Crepe is similar to organzine, but it twisted to much greater extent, usually, 16 to 32 turns / cm.

Question 5.
Why do the wool fibres have greater bulk as compared to other fibres?
Answer:
The scales and crimps in the wool fibre make it possible to spin and felt the fleece. They help the individual wool fibres “grab” each other so that they stay together. Because of the crimp, wool fabrics have a greater bulk; than other textiles. They can retain lot of air and hence wool fabrics are good insulators of heat. The heat insulation also works boths ways.

Question 6.
Name the some breeds of sheep reared in our country. Also, indicate the quality and texture of the fibres obtained from them.
Answer:
Some Indian breeds of sheep:
Answer:

Name of breed	Quality of wool	State where found
1. Lohi	Good quality wool	Rajasthan, Punjab
2. Rampur bushair	Brown fleece	Uttar Pradesh, Himachal
3. Nali	Carpet wool	Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab
4. Bakharwal	For woollen shawls	Jammu and Kashmir
5. Marwari	Coarse wool	Gujarat
6. Patanwadi	For hosiery	Gujarat

Question 7.
Write short note on ‘wool production’.
Answer:
Australia is the world’s largest producer of raw wool and contributes 29% of total world supply. Other leading producers of wool are former Soviet Republics, New Zealand, China, Argentina, South Africa and Uruguay. In India sheep are reared in Sub-Himalayan regions which has a cooler climate. The sheep which are reared in Rajasthan have poor quality of wool and are mainly reared for meat.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is raw silk? How is it produced?
Answer:
After brushing, filaments from four to eight cocoons are joined and twisted. They are then combined with a number of other similarly twisted filaments, to make a thread that is wound oft a reel. The thread is called raw silk. It usually consists of 48 individual silk fibres. When each cocoon is unwound, it is replaced by another cocoon. Unlike the threads spun from other natural fibres, such as cotton or wool, the silk thread is made of extremely long fibres. About 5,500 cocoons are required to produced 1 kg of raw silk.

Question 2.
What is sericulture? Explain in brief.
Answer:
The silk is obtained from cocoon. When the complete cocoon is formed, they are collected. The pupa inside the cocoon is killed by treating the cocoons with boiling water. This hot water not only kills the cocoons but also dissolves the sticky substance that holds the cocoon filaments in place. The cocoons are, thereafter, dried and brushed. This removes the outer portion that is made of coarse filaments.

The thread is then unwound from the cocoons and is wound on a reel. The thread is called the raw silk. It generally consists of 48 individual silk fibres. The silk filaments are unwound from cocoon in a manufacturing plant known as filature. The silk thread is made up of extremely long fibres. About 5,500 silkworms are needed to produce 1 kg of raw silk. The breeding and management of silk moths for producing silk is known as sericulture.

Question 3.
Explain briefly the process of wool manufacturing.
Answer:
In order to make different articles, the raw wool is processed which starts with sorting of the fibres. The fibres are sorted on the basis of length, fineness, etc. The sorting is followed by cleaning 6f the fibres. Using a suitable detergent, the fibres are cleaned from lanolin (an oily substance) and suint (the dried perspiration of sheep). The cleaned wool fibres are then dried and disentangled. Thereafter, they are drawn into a straight continuous thread. This process is called cerding. The kind of yarns that are produced may be woollen yarn or worsted yarn.

For the production oi wooiien yarn, the web is split into fine thin strands, by a process called roving. It is then spun into woollen yarn. Woollen fabric such as tweed is woven from woollen yarn. It is a bulky fabric in which short woollen fibres are arranged randomly. It does not have smooth surface.

For the production of worsted yam, the web is processed by the machines that (i) straighten the fibres (ii) make them parallel (iii) remove all the short fibres. The resultant woolen strand is then condensed by passing it through several machines, until a very thin strand of worsted roving is obtained. It is then spun to a smooth yarn.

Question 4.
What are the uses of wool? What is woolmark?
Answer:
Wool is used for making fabrics, shawls, blankets, carpets, felt (compressed wool) and upholstery. Wool felt is used to cover piano hammers. It is also used to absorb noise in heavy machinery and stereo speakers.

Shoddy is made from the used wool. To make shoddy, the existing wool fabric is cut into small pieces and then carddd. The carded wool is then respun into yarn. Such a yarn is inferior to the fresh wool and is used for making cheap woollen garments and blankets.

Woolmark:
Wool is marketed worldwide by the International Wool Secretariat (IWS), which is based in Ilkley, North Yorkshise (U.K.). The “Woolmark” instituted by IWS indicates that garments bearing this sign are made from pure new wool, that has not been used previously in any process.

Fibre to Fabric Class 7  HBSE Notes

• Wool comes from sheep, goat, yak and some other animals. These wool- yielding animals bear hair (fleece) on their body.
• The hairy skin of the sheep has two types of fibres that form its fleece : (i) the coarse beard hair, and (ii) the fine soft under hair close to the skin.
• The wool which is used for knitting sweaters or for weaving shawls is the finished product of a long process.
• Sheep hair is sheared off from the body, scoured, sorted, dried, dyed, spun and woven to yield wool.
• The hairs of camel, llama and alpaca are also processed to yield wool.
• The wool may be classified as Virgin, Hogg or pulled depending upon its quality.
• In wool production, Australia and New Zealand produce two-thirds of the world’s supply.
• Woolmark is the mark of standardisation given to pure and new wool.
• Silk fibres are also animal fibres. Silkworms spin the ‘silk fibres’. The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called sericulture.
• The female silk moth lays eggs, from which hatch larvae which are called caterpillars or silkworms.
• During their life cycle, the worms spin cocoons of silk fibres.
• Silk fibres are made of a protein.
• Tassar silk, mooga silk, kosa silk, etc., are obtained from cocoons spun by different types of moths.
• The most common silk moth is the mulberry silk moth. The silk fibre from the cocoon of this moth is soft, lustrous and elastic and can be dyed in beautiful colours.
• Sericulture is a very old occupation in India. India produces plenty of silk on a commercial scale.
• A pile of cocoons is used for obtaining silk fibres. This process is called reeling of silk. The cocoons are kept under the sun or boiled or exposed to steam. The silk fibres separate out. The process of taking out threads from the cocoon for use as silk is called reeling the silk.

Haryana State Board HBSE 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

HBSE 7th Class Science Nutrition in Animals Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
(a) The main steps of digestion in humans are …………… , …………… , …………… , …………… , and …………… .
(b) The largest gland in these human body is …………… .
(c) The stomach releases hydrochloric acid and …………. juices which act on food.
(d) The inner wall of the small intestine has many finger-like outgrowths called …………… .
(e) Amoeba digests its food in the …………… .
Answer:
(a) ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation, egestion
(b) liver
(c) digestive
(d) villi
(e) food vacuole.

Question 2.
Mark T if the statement is true and F if it is false:
(а) Digestion of starch starts in the stomach.
(b) The tongue helps in mixing food with saliva.
(c) The gall bladder temporarily stores bile.
(d) The ruminants bring back swallowed grass into their mouth and chew it for some time.
Answer:
(a) False
(b) True
(c) False and
(d) True.

Question 3.
Tick (✓) mark the correct answer in each of the following:
(a) Fat is completely digested in the:
(i) stomach
(ii) mouth
(iii) small intestine
(iv) large intestine.
Answer:
(iii) small intestine.

(b) Water from the undigested food is absorbed mainly in the:
(i) Stomach
(ii) food pipe
(iii) small intestine
(iv) large intestine.
Answer:
(iv) large intestine.

Question 4.
Match the items of column I with those given in column II:

Column I	Column II
Food Components	Product (s) of Digestion
(i) Carbohydrates	(a) Fatty acids and glycerol
(ii) Proteins	(b) Sugar
(iii) Fats	(c) Amino acids

Answer:

Column I	Column II
Food Components	Product (s) of Digestion
(i) Carbohydrates	(b) Sugar
(ii) Proteins	(c) Amino acids
(iii) Fats	(a) Fatty acids and glycerol

Question 5.
What are Villi? What is their location and function?
Answer:
Villi are the finger like structures which are the form of internal layer. They are situated in the stomach.
Functions:
(i) Villi provides space for food.
(ii) Digestive juice is secreted out from the digestive glands present in the Villi in the embedded form.
(iii) The food is grinded by the contraction and expansion of Villi.

Question 6.
Where is the bile produced? Which component of the food does it digest?
Answer:
The liver secretes bile juice that is stored in a sac called the gall bladder. The bile plays an important role in the digestion of fats.

Question 7.
Name the type of carbohydrate that can be digested by ruminants but not by humans. Give the reason also.
Answer:
The grass is rich in cellulose, a type of carbohydrate. Many animals, including humans, cannot digest cellulose. The cellulose can be digested by ruminants but not by humans because they have a large sac-like structure between the small intestine and large intestine. The cellulose of the food is digested here by the action of certain bacteria which are not present in humans.

Question 8.
Why do we get instant energy from glucose?
Answer:
We get instant energy from glucose, because in the cells, glucose breaks down with the help of oxygen into carbon dioxide and water and energy is released.

Question 9.
Which part of the digestive canal is involved in:
(i) absorption of food
(ii) chewing of food
(iii) killing of bacteria
(iv) complete digestion of food
(v) formation of faeces.
Answer:
(i) small intestine
(ii) buccal cavity
(iii) stomach
(iv) small intestine
(v) large intestine.

Question 10.
Write one similarity and one difference between the nutrition in Amoeba and human beings.
Answer:
Similarity: In both, the process of digestion involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation and egestion.
Difference: In Amoeba, the enzymes secreted by the call cytoplasm digest the ingested food.
In man, there are special organs for the digestion of food. The food passes through the alimentary canal. Here several digestive enzymes are secreted. These enzymes break the complex food materials into simpler ones.

Question 11.
Match the items of column 1 with suitable items in column II:

Column I	Column II
(a) Salivary gland	(i) Bile juice secretion
(b) Stomach	(ii)Storage of undigested food
(c) Liver	(iii) Saliva secretion
(d) Rectum	(iv) Acid release
(e) Small intestine	(v)Digestion is completed
(f) Large intestine	(vi)Absorption of water

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Salivary gland	(iii) Saliva secretion
(b) Stomach	(iv) Acid release
(c) Liver	(i) Bile juice secretion
(d) Rectum	(vii) Release of faeces
(e) Small intestine	(v)Digestion is completed
(f) Large intestine	(vi)Absorption of water

Question 12.
Label following figure of the digestive system.

Answer:

Question 13.
Can we survive only on raw, leafy vegetables/grass? Discuss.
Answer:
No, we cannot survive only on raw, leafy vegetables/grass, Discuss of this topic in your class and ask to your teacher.

Extended Learning Activities And Project

Question 1.
Visit a doctor and find out:
(i) Under what conditions does a patient need to be on a drip of glucose?
(ii) Till when does a patient need to be given glucose?
(iii) How does glucose help the patient recover?
Write the answers in your notebook.
Answer:
Do yourself. Consult your family doctor and ask these Questions.

Question 2.
Find out what Vitamins are and get the following information.
(i) Why are Vitamins necessary in the diet?
(ii) Which fruits or vegetables should be eaten regularly to get Vitamins?
Write a one-page note on the information collected by you. You may take help of a doctor, a dietician, your teacher or any other person, or any other source.
Answer:
You have learnt about vitamins in class VI (chapter 2 – components of food).

Question 3.
Collect data from your friends, neighbours and classmates to find out about “milk teeth”. Tabulate your data. One way of doing it is given below:

S. No	Age at which first tooth fell	Age at Which last tooth fell	No. of teeth lost	No. of teeth replaced
1. 2. 3. 4 5.

Find out from at least twenty children and find the average age at which children lose the milk teeth. You may take help of your friends.
Answer:
Do yourself. Take help to your classmates and friends.

HBSE 7th Class Science Nutrition in Animals Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the body parts that capture food in Hydra, Amoeba.
Answer:
Hydra-tentacles, Amoeba-Pseudopodia.

Question 2.
Name the important parts of the digestive system of human body.
Answer:
(i) Mouth with buccal cavity
(ii) Oesophagus
(iii) Stomach
(iv) Duodenum
(v) Small intestine
(vi) Large intestine
(vii) Anus.

Question 3.
Name three parts in which digestion takes place in the digestive system of human body.
Answer:
(i) Buccal cavity
(ii) Stomach
(iii) Small intestine with duodenum.

Question 4.
In which part of the digestive system absorption of water takes place?
Answer:
Absorption of water takes place in large intestine.

Question 5.
What are Villi?
Answer:
Villi are the finger like folds in the inner walls of stomach.

Question 6.
What is the fuel for energy production in cells?
Answer:
Carbohydrates acts as the fuel for energy.

Question 7.
Name Five steps in the process of nutrition.
Answer:
1. Ingestion
2. digestion
3. absorption
4. assimilation and
5. egestion.

Question 8.
In which part of the alimentary canal
(a) absorption of water takes place
(b) assimilation of digested food occurs?
Answer:
(a) Large intestine
(b) Small intestine.

Question 9.
In which two parts of man does much of the digestion take place?
Answer:
In stomach and small intestine much of the digestion take place.

Question 10.
What are pseudopodia?
Answer:
Amoeba constantly changes its shape and position. It pushes out one, or more finger-like projections, called pseudopodia or false feet for movement and capture of food.

Question 11.
Name the organ of the digestive system where digestion of food of all types takes place.
Answer:
Small Intestine.

Question 12.
Is the large intestine really large?
Answer:
No. The large intestine is wider and shorter than small intestine. It is about 1.5 metre in length.

Question 13.
Where does digestion start in humans?
Answer:
In humans, digestion starts in stomach.

Question 14.
Name the largest gland in the human body.
Answer:
Liver is the largest gland in the human body.

Question 15.
Name three ruminant animals.
Answer:
1. Cow
2. Buffalo and
3. Horse.

Question 16.
Define ruminants.
Answer:
Herbivores like cow, buffalo etc. first swallow the food without chewing it. After some time, they bring back the swallowed food to their mouth from the pouch of the stomach. Then they again grind the food well and swallow it. It is called chewing of the cud. These animals are known as ruminants.

Question 17.
What are incisors?
Answer:
Incisors are the flat front teeth. These have a sharp straight edge that help us to cut food and hence, they are also called cutting teeth. There are four incisors in each jaw.

Question 18.
What are canines?
Answer:
Canines are the pointed teeth present on either side of the incisors. These help us to tear the food and hence, they are called the tearing teeth. There are two such teeth in each jaw.

Question 19.
Define ingestion.
Answer:
Ingestion is the process by which food is taken by the organisms.

Question 20.
Define digestion.
Answer:
Digestion is the process of breaking down complex food molecules into similar molecules and is brought about with the help of special molecules called enzymes.

Question 21.
Define egestion.
Answer:
Egestion is the process by which undigested food is removed from the body.

Question 22.
Define absorption.
Answer:
The process by which the digested food molecules are taken up (or absorbed) by the intestine wall and sent to the circulatory system is called absorption.

Question 23.
What is assimilation?
Answer:
Assimilation is a process of conversion of absorbed food into body. For example, in man and other higher animals, the blood carries the food to different parts of the body for incorporation into cell components.

Question 24.
What is gall bladder?
Answer:
The liver secretes juices which help in digestion and are stored in a small bag called the gall bladder.

Question 25.
In which part of the digestive system and assimilation of food takes place?
Answer:
In human digestive system. Digestion takes place in buccal cavity, stomach and small intestine. Assimilation takes place in small intestine.

Question 26.
Write two functions of Villi.
Answer:
(i) Villi provides space for food.
(ii) Digestive juice is secreted out from the digestive glands present in the villi in the embedded form.

Question 27.
What is the function of oesophagus?
Answer:
No digestion takes place here. It only helps in pushing the food into stomach.

Question 28.
What is amylase?
Answer:
Saliva contains an enzyme called amylase. Amylase acts on starch and changes it into a sugar (called maltose).

Question 29.
Name the two processes of respiration.
Answer:
Inhalation and exhalation are the two processes of respiration.

Question 30.
Name the cells that carry water and food in the body of a green plant.
Answer:
Cells of Xylem vessels.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do the different animals procure food?
Answer:
Different organisms procure different methods. There are special structures in each organism for taking in food, for example, frog uses its sticky tongue to catch the prey. Butterfly has probosces (special mouth parts) to suck nectar from flowers. The housefly also lives on liquid food. It also has feeding tube to suck the liquid food. A spider spins a web to catch small insects. Human beings use hands to put their food in the mouth.

Question 2.
What are the stages in the process of Nutrition?
Answer:
The food taken into the body by an animal is processed further to derive nutrients from it. There are five stages in the processing of food in an animal.
These include:
(i) Ingestion
(ii) Digestion
(iii) Absorption
(iv) Assimilation
(v) Egestion.

Question 3.
“What do you understand by digestive enzymes?” How does amylase affect starch?
Answer:
Digestive enzymes are the special proteins secreted out in gastric glands, small intestine and in pancreas. Specific enzyme helps in digestion of specific food item.

Amylase is the enzyme secreted in the pancreatic juice which converts carbohydrates (Polysaccharides) starch into Maltose sugar (Disaccharides).

Question 4.
How does nutrition occur in amoeba?
Answer:Amoeba
constantly changes its shape and position. It pushes out one, or more finger-like projections, called pseudopodia or false feet for movement and capture of food.

Amoeba feeds on some microscopic organisms. When it senses food, it pushes out pseudopodia around the food particle and engulfs it. The food becomes trapped in a food vacuole. Digestive juices are secreted into the food vacuole. They act on the food and break it down into simpler substances. The absorbed substances are used for growth, maintenance and multiplication. The undigested residue of the food is expelled outside by the Vacuole.

Question 5.
How does nutrition occur in paramecium?
Answer:
In paramecium, the food is ingested with the help of small hair-like structures present on the cell membrane. These are called the cilia. The food passes to oral groove from the cell membrane and then enters the mouth. From the mouth the food is taken inside the main body, where the food vacuole helps in its digestion with the help of enzymes. The undigested food is excreted with the help of contrectile vacuole.

Question 6.
Differentiate between absorption apd assimilation.
Answer:
Absorption:
It is a process by which digested food gets absorbed. The soluble food materials pass through the wall of digestive tract and reach the circulatory system or body fluid of an organism. In human beings and in other higher organisms, absorption takes place in the small intestine.

Assimilation:
It is a process of conversion of absorbed food into body. For example, in man and other higher animals the blood carries the food of different parts of the body for incorporation into cell components.

Question 7.
Write short note on small intestine.
Answer:
Small intestine is a long coiled tube. It also secretes a juice and digestion of all types of food is carried out here. As a result of digestion, food is converted into simple form, and glucose, amino acid and fatty acides etc. are formed. These end products are ready for absorption. Small intestine also absorbs the digested food and passes it on to the blood system. Thus, the nutrients are carried to all parts of the body.

Question 8.
What happens to the digested food in our bodies?
Answer:
Our body requires energy to carry out the various activities of life. We get this energy from the food we eat. This happens during respiration. The food which we eat is digested in the alimentary canal. But the alimentary canal alone does not require food. It must go to all parts of the body. The digested food is absorbed by the small intestine and passed on to the blood. Through the blood, the absorbed food is carried to all parts of the body.

Question 9.
Why is the process of excretion important for living organisms?
Answer:
In all the living beings the metabolic activities take palce within the body for getting energy. The remaining part of the food is called as the waste material which are harmful to the body. So to become healthy and for proper functioning it is essential to pass these wastes from the body.

Question 10.
What are the main organs of the digestive system in our body?
Answer:
The process of digestion starts in the mouth. From the mouth, the food passes through a food canal (called alimentary canal).
Alimentary canal is a long, muscular and coiled tube, it starts from the mouth and ends at anus.
The different organs of the alimentary canal are as follows:
1. Mouth and mouth cavity.
2. Oesophagus (gullet or food pipe)
3. Stomach.
4. Small intestine.
5. Large intestine.
6. Anus.

Associated with the alimentary canal are some glands. These are:
1. Salivary glands
2. Liver
3. Pancreas.
The alimentary canal along with the associated glands is called the digestive system.

Question 11.
Write the functions of tongue.
Answer:
Tongue, a muscular organ, is also important for eating and performs several functions:
(i) It helps in mixing the chewed food with saliva
(ii) Swallowing the food
(iii) The tongue tastes, as it has sense organs called the taste buds.
These buds distinguish four basic tastes-salty, sour, sweet and bitter. In addition, it helps us to speak.

Question 12.
What are salivary glands?
Answer:
There are three pairs of salivary glands in our mouth. A watery material called saliva is secreted by these glands. Saliva helps in the digestion of food. Saliva contains an enzyme called amylase (also called ptyalin). Amylase acts on starch and changes it into a sugar (called maltose). The sugar is sweet and soluble in water.

Question 13.
What is meant by excretion? Explain its need for the sustenance of the individual.
Answer:
Excretion is the passing out of the metabolic wastes from the body through special organs known as excretory organs. The excretory matter, if it is present in the body, will disturb the metabolic activities going on in different parts of the body and also become hurdle in the circulation. It will disturb metabolic activity in body. So it is necessary to excrete out all the metabolic wastes from the body.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the different types of teeth in an adult man and state their functions. Also give a labelled diagram of different types of teeth.
Answer:
There are four main kinds of teeth in humans-incisors, canines, premolars and molars.

The front four teeth in each jaw are the incisors. They are flat and help in biting the food. On either side of the incisors are the canines. These are sharp and two in number in each jaw. They are meant for tearing the food. The premolars and molars are meant for grinding and crushing the food. Premolars are behind the canines, two in number on either side in each jaw.

Molars are behipd the preiholars. In an adult, they are six in number in each jaw, three each on either side of the premolars. In young people there are 8 molars in all. The second set of 4 molars appears at the age of eighteen or even later. These are called the wisdom teeth. Each jaw in an adult has 16 teeth, or 32 teeth in all.

Question 2.
Describe briefly the different stages involved in the process of nutrition.
Answer:
The different stages involved in the process of nutrition are:
1. Ingestion:
It is a process of taking in food. It differs from animal to animal, for example, frog uses its tongue to catch its prey, human beings hold food with hands and put it into their mouth, etc.

2. Digestion:
It is a process of breakdown of complex food materials such as carbohydrates, fats, proteins etc, into simpler forms. It is both a mechanical and a chemical process.

3. Absorption:
It is a process by which digested food gets absorbed. The soluble food materials pass through the wall of digestive tract and reach the circulatory system or body fluid of an organism. In human beings and in other higher organisms, absorption takes place in the small intestine.

4. Assimilation:
It is process of conversion of absorbed food into body. For example, in man and other higher animals, the blood carries the food to different parts of the body for incorporation into cell components.

5. Egestion:
It is the process by which the undigested food is eliminated from the body. In man and other organisms, it is carried out through the anus.

Question 3.
Name the things which help in physical and chemical digestion.
Answer:
The things which help in physical digestion are as follows:
(а) Tongue and Teeth: They masticate and chew the food. The tongue helps in this process.
(b) Villi of Stomach: By peristeltic movement villi help in mixing the digestive juices with the food.

The things which help in chemical digestion are as follows:
(а) Saliva: It contains ptyalin which convert carbohydrates of food into maltose sugar.
(b) Hydrochloric acid: It provides the acidic medium to the food.
Gastric Juice: It contains pepsin enzyme which converts protein into peptone.

(c) Pancreatic juice: It contains three enzymes.
Trypsin: Which converts peptone into amino acid.
Amylopsin: Which converts maltose sugar into sugar.
Stepsin or lypase: It converts fat into fatty acid and glycol.

(d) Intestinal juice: Which converts the remaining part of food into soluble form.

Question 4.
‘Excretion is a process to eliminate waste by products from the body’. Justify the statement.
Answer:
In all the living beings the biochemical reactions go on continuously which are commonly named as metabolism. It is of two types i.e., anabolism and catabolism. During anabolism the simple compounds combine together to form complex compounds while in catabolism the complex compounds are oxidised and convert into simple compounds and energy. These by products are waste and harmful substances. They are to be expelled out from the body.

If these wastes remain inside the body they will combine together to form other compounds which may be poisonous or more harmful to the body. They may become hurdle to the activities and also may cause death. So the catabolic by products should be passed out from the body. These products are called excretory matter and the organs through which they are expelled, are called excretory organs and the process is called as excretion.

Question 5.
What are the various components of blood? Give their functions.
Answer:
The various components along with their functions are as follows:
Blood Plasma: It is the liquid of the blood which carries food materials, water and other excretory matter to all parts of the body.
Corpuscles:
They are of the three following types:
1. Red Blood Corpuscles (R.B.C.): They carry oxygen to all cells of all parts of the body.
2. White Blood Corpuscles (W.B.C.): They are uninucleated and amoeboid in shape. They light against the disease germs.
3. Blood Platelets: They are spindle shaped and help in clotting the wounds.

Nutrition in Animals Class 7  HBSE Notes

• Animal nutrition includes nutrient requirement, mode of intake of food and its utilisation in the body.
• Digestion is the process of breaking down complex food molecules into simpler molecules and is brought about with the help of special molecules called enzymes.
• The human digestive system consists of the alimentary canal and secretory glands. It consists of the (i) buccal cavity, (ii) oesophagus, (iii) stomach, (iv) small intestine, (v) large intestine ending in rectum, and (vi) anus.
  → The main digestive glands which secrete digestive juices are (i) the salivary glands, (ii) the liver and (iii) the pancreas. The stomach wall and the wall of the small intestine also secrete digestive juices.
• Different organisms possess different structures for procuring food.
• Digestion is a complex process involving: (i) ingestion, (ii) digestion, (iii) absorption, (iv) assimilation and (v) egestion.
• Digestion of carbohydrates, like starch, begins in the buccal cavity. The digestion of protein starts in the stomach. The bile secreted from the liver, the pancreatic juice from the pancreas and the digestive juice from the intestinal wall complete the digestion of all components of food in the small intestine. The digested food is absorbed in the blood vessels in the small intestine.
• The absorbed substances are transported to different parts of the body. Water and some salts are absorbed from the undigested food in the large intestine.
• The undigested and unabsorbed residues are expelled out of the body as faeces through the anus.
• The grazing animals like cows, buffaloes and deer quickly swallow the grass and store it in a separate part of the stomach called rumen. Here the food gets partially digested and is called cud. But later the cud returns to the mouth in small lumps and the animal chews it. This process is called rumination and these animals are called ruminants.
• Amoeba feeds on some microscopic organisms. When it senses food, it pushes out pseudopodia around the food particle and engulfs it. The food becomes trapped in a food vacuole.

Haryana State Board HBSE 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

HBSE 7th Class Science Wastewater Story Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks :
(a) Cleaning of water is a process of removing _________.
(b) Wastewater released by houses is called _________.
(c) Dried _________ is used as manure.
(d) Drains get blocked by _________ and _________.
Answer:
(a) pollutants
(b) sewage
(c) sludge
(d) chemicals, kitchenwaste.

Question 2.
What is sewage? Explain why it is harmful to discharge untreated sewage into rivers or seas.
Answer:
Sewage is a liquid containing wastes disposed off by household, industrial and agricultural, activities in water. It is dangerous to release untreated sewage in water because it can pollute the whole source of water. Sewage contain harmful substances and disease causing organisms. It is therefore, dangerous and unsafe to release untreated sewage in water.

Question 3.
Why should oils and fats be not realeased in the drain? Explain.
Answer:
Oils and fats should not be released in, the drains because they harden the soil in the pipes and block them. Fats get clogged in the holes of the soil in the drain and block it. It does not allow the wastewater to flow and thus the whole sewer system is blocked.

Question 4.
Describe the steps involved in getting clarified water from wastewater.
Answer:
Water is treated physically, chemically and biologically in wastewater treatment plant.
Following Steps are involved in the purification of water:
(i) At first stage all the physical impurities like stones, rags, napkins, plastic bags, cans, packets etc. are removed. It is done by passing the water through bar screens.

(ii) Then water is taken to grit and sand removal tank where impurities are removed by sedimentation.

(iii) Solids impurities and faeces etc. are collected from the bottom of the water. These solid impurities collected are called sludge. Water is cleared of floatable solids like oil and grease.

(iv) Clarified water is cleared of other impurities by aerator. All disease causing bacteria are removed by chlorination and water is released in various water bodies.

Question 5.
What is sludge? Explain how it is treated.
Answer:
Sludge is the collected solid waste from the wastewater during the treatment in water treatment plant. Sludge is decomposed in a separate tank by the anaerobic bacteria. Activated sludge is used as manure.

Question 6.
Untreated human excreta is a health hazard. Explain.
Answer:
Untreated excreta can cause a lot of health related problems. It pollutes soil, water and air. The polluted water contain disease causing bacteria, which can spread epidemics like cholera, meningities etc.

Question 7.
Name two chemicals used to disinfect water.
Answer:
Chlorine and ozone are the chemical used to clean the wastewater.

Question 8.
Explain the function of bar screens in a wastewater treatment plant.
Answer:
Bar screens clear the wastewater of all the physical impurities. Large waste objects like napkins, plastics, can sticks, rags etc. are, removed from the wastewater through the bar screens.

Question 9.
Explain the relationship between sanitation and disease.
Answer:
Sanitation and disease are related each other. It sanitation is there no disease will occur, but if the sanitation is not there various types of diseases will occur and spread. So sanitation should be kept to avoid diseases.

Question 10.
Outline your role as an active citizen in relation to sanitation.
Answer:
As active citizen we should take care of our personal and environmental sanitation. We should make people around us, aware of the benefits of sanitation we should help the municipal corporations and gram panchayats to cover all the open drains and remove the unhygenic and disease causing substances thrown in’open.

Question 11
Here is a crossword puzzle : “Good luck !

Across:
3. Liquid waste products
4. Solid waste extracted in sewage treatment
6. A word related to hygiene
8. Waste matter discharged from human body

Down:
1. Used water
2. A pipe carrying sewage
5. Micro-organisms which causes cholera
7. A chemical to disinfect water
Answer:

Question 12.
Study the following statements about ozone:
(a) It is essential for breathing of living organisms.
(b) It is used to disinfect water.
(c) It absorbs ultraviolet rays.
(d) Its- proportion in air is about 3%.
Which of these statements are correct?
(i) (a), (b) and (c)
(ii) (b) and (c)
(iii) (a) and (d)
(iv) All four
Answer:
(b) and (c)

Extended Learning – Activities and projects

Question 1.
Construct a crossword puzzle of your own using the keywords.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Then and now; Talk to your grand parents and other elderly people in the neighbourhood. Find out the sewage disposal systems available to them. You can also write letters to people living in far off places to get more information. Prepare a brief-report, on the information you collected.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 3.
Visit a sewage treatment,plant.
It-could be as exciting and enriching as a visit to a zoo, a museum, or a park. To guide your observation here are a few suggestions.
Record in your notepad :
Place _________ Date _________ Time Name of the official at the plant _________ Guide/Teacher _________.
(a) The location of the sewage plant.
(b) Treatment capacity.
(c) The purpose of screening as the initial process.
(d) How is air bubbled through the aeration tank?
(e) How safe is the water at the end of the treatment? How is it tested?
(f) Where is the water discharged after treatment?
(g) What happens to the plant during heavy rains?
(h) Is biogas consumed within the plant or sold to other consumers?
(i) What happens to the treatment sludge?
(j) Is there any special effort to protect nearby houses from the plant?
(k) Other observations.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

HBSE 7th Class Science Wastewater Story Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write different sources of wastewater?
Answer:
Household activities, industrial activities and agricultural activities.

Question 2.
Name certain organic impurities in the wastewater.
Answer:
Animal waste, Human faeces, oil and urine, fruits and vegetables.

Question 3.
Write certain Inorganic impurities in, the wastewater.
Answer:
Metals, phosphates and nitrates.

Question 4.
Name certain disease causing micro-organism.
Answer:
Bacterias, Viruses etc.

Question 5.
Which process removes the solids like faeces and other substances from the wastewater?
Answer:
Grit and sand removal tank.

Question 6.
Which instrument is used to remove floatable solids from the wastewater?
Answer:
A skimmer is used to remove floatable impurities.

Question 7.
Who decomposes the sludge?
Answer:
Anaerobic bacteria decompose the sludge.

Question 8.
What helps to clean the clarified water?
Answer:
Aerobic bacteria helps to clean the clarified water.

Question 9.
Why is ozone and chlorine used?
Answer:
Ozone and Chlorine is used to kill the bacteria etc. present in the clarified water.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is water’polluted?
Answer:
Water is used for various’purposes in homes, industries and agriculture. When water is used for cleaning, bathing, washing, dying etc. it pollutes the water. Unwanted waste materials and chemicals etc. get added in the water and this wastes the water.

Question 2.
How “bar screen” and ‘grit and sand removal tank’ help in clarification of water?
Answer:
When wastewater is passed through bar screens it separates big and large objects like plastics, bags, sticks, can, napkins etc. In grit and sand removal tank other solid impurities like pebbless and etc. are removed.

Question 3.
How is sludge treated?
Answer:
Sludge is the solid impurities separated from the sewage. It is removed and treated in a separate tank with anaerobic bacteria. During this process biogas is produced which is used to produce electricity. Dried sludge is used as manure.

Question 4.
What are the problem arising due to open drains and other unsanitary conditions?
Answer:
Open drains and unsanitary conditions produce bad smell. It becomes an idle place of breeding for mosquitoes, files and other harmful insects. These insects spread many harmful diseases and other health hazards.

Question 5.
How the kitchen waste blocks the drains?
Answer:
Kitchen waste like oils and fats clogs the pores in soil and reduce the Alteration process. It also blocks the pipes by hardening the pipes. Wastes like tealeaves solid food remains, cotton etc. also choke the pipes and slows down flow of oxygen. This slows down the decomposition process by the aerobic bacteria.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How defection in open cause health hazards?
Answer:
Due to lack of proper sewage disposal system a large amount of people in India defecates in open. They use riverbeds, railway lines, fields and drains for this purpose. These excreta dries down and percolate, in soil with rain water. It pollutes the ground water. Excreate along river bed pollutes the river water. In this way water on the ground and under the ground get polluted. This polluted water contains the micro-organisms of various communicable diseases like cholera, typhoid, hepatilis and meningiti it is dysentry etc.

Wastewater Story Class 7 HBSE Notes

• Water is a precious natural resource.
• We cannot imagine our lives without water.
• We waste a lot of water daily in various household and industrial activities Such water is called wastewater.
• The wastewater produced during household activities, industrial activities, and various agricultural processes is also called sewage.
• Sewage is the liquid waste that can cause various diseases and environmental hazards if not managed.
• Sewage is collected from its sources and treated to destroy its harmful constituent to clean it.
• It is made usable in treatment plants and disposed of in various sources of water.
• Drainage systems should be covered to avoid communicable diseases.
• We should not throw waste in the open and should not defecate in open.
• Low-cost disposal methods can be adopted in areas where a proper sewer system is not available.

Haryana State Board HBSE 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

HBSE 7th Class Science Nutrition in Plants Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do organisms need to take food?
Answer:
Food is needed by all living organisms for four main purposes:
(i) An important function of food is to help a living organism to grow, if enough food is not given or it is not of the right kind, growth will not be sufficient or healthy.
(ii) Second important function of food is to provide energy. We need energy for doing physical work. We use more energy when we run than when we walk and less energy when we sleep. Energy is given by hidden materials present in our food.
(iii) Food is also needed by living beings for replacement and repairing their damaged body parts.
(iv) Food gives us resistance against diseases and protects us from infections.

Question 2.
Distinguish between a parasite and a saprotroph.
Answer:
Parasite:
The mode of nutrition in organisms which derive their food from the body of some other living organism is called parasite nutrition. Such organism are called parasite. Examples of parasites are Tapeworm, Roundworm, Malarial parasite, Cuscutta, Puccinia (a fungus) etc.

Saprotroph:
The mode of nutrition in organisms which derive their food from the dead and decaying organic matter is called saprotroph nutrition and such organisms are called saprotroph. Examples of saprotrophs’^ire Mushrooms, Yeast and Bacteria.

Question 3.
How would you test the presence of starch in leaves?
Answer:
Starch Test:
(i) Take the green leaf to be tested.
(ii) Boil it in water for 5 minutes.
(iii) Keep it in the 60% angle amyle alcohol at 60°C till it becomes colourless.
(iv) Take the colourless leaf out from alcohol and wash it with cold water.
(v)Pour few drops of dilute Iodine solution on the leaf. The leaf becomes very blue with the solution which proves the presence of starch in the leaf.

Question 4.
Give a brief description of the process of synthesis of food in green plants.
Answer:
The process by which the green plants synthesize their own food in the presence of Sunlight and chlorophyll by taking carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and water from the soil is known as photosynthesis. The process of photosynthesis can be summarised as given below:

Green plants require four things to prepare their own food. These are:
1. Carbon dioxide, absorbed from the atmosphere through stomata present on the leaf surface.
2. Water, absorbed from the soil, through the root system.
3. Chlorophyll, present in the leaf.
4. Light, coming from the sun.
During photosynthesis, food is synthesized.
Oxygen is released in the process.

Question 5.
Show with the help of a sketch that the plants are the ultimate source of food.
Answer:

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks:
(a) Green plants are called ………….. since they synthesise their own food.
(b) The food synthesised by the plants isstared as …………… .
(c) In photosynthesis solar energy is captured by the pigment called …………… .
(d) During photosynthesis plants take in ………. and release ……………. .
Answer:
(a) autotrophs
(b) solar enetgy
(c) chlorophyll
(d) carbon dioxide, oxygen.

Question 7.
Name the following:
(i) A parasite plant with yellow, slender, tubular stem.
(ii) A plant that has both* autotrophic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
(iii) The pores through which leaves exchange gases.
Answer:
(i) Cuscuta (Amarbet)
(ii) Pitcher plant
(iii) Stomata

Question 8.
Tick the correct answer:
(a) Amarbel is an example of:
(i) Autotroph
(ii) Parasite
(iii) Saprotroph
(iv) Host.
Answer:
(iii) Parasite.

(b) The plant which traps arid feeds on insects is:
(i) Cuscuta
(ii) China rose
(iii) Pitcher plant
(iv) Rose.
Answer:
(iii) Pitcher plant.

Question 9.
Match the items given in column I with those in Column II:

Column I	Column II
(a) Chlorophyll	(i) Bacteria
(b) Nitrogen	(ii) Heterotrophs
(c) Amarbel	(iii) Pitcher plant
(d) Animals	(iv) Leaf
(e) Insects	(v) Parasite

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Chlorophyll	(iv) Leaf
(b) Nitrogen	(i) Bacteria
(c) Amarbel	(v) Parasite
(d) Animals	(ii) Heterotrophs
(e) Insects	(iii) Pitcher plant

Question 10.
Mark ‘T’ if two Statement is true and ‘F’ if it is False.
(i) Carbon dioxide is released during photosynthesis.
(ii) Plants which synthesise their food themselves are called saprotrophs.
(iii) The product of photosynthesis is not a protein.
(iv) Solar energy is converted into chemical energy during photosynthesis.
Answer:
(i) False
(ii) False
(iii) False
(iv) True.

Question 11.
Choose the correct option from the following:
Which part of the plant gets carbon dioxide from the air for photosynthesis?
(i) Root hair
(ii) Stomata
(iii) Leaf veins
(iv) Sepals.
Answer:
(ii) Stomata.

Question 12.
Choose the correct option from the; following:
Plants take carbon dioxide from the atmosphere mainly through their:
(i) Roots
(ii) Stem
(iii) Flowers
(iv) Leaves.
Answer:
(iv) Leaves.

Extended Learning – Activities and Projects

Question 1.
Project
Take a potted plant with broad leaves. Take a strip of black paper and cut out a small square in its centre. Cover a part of a leaf with this paper
and secure it the occurrence of photosynthesis

with paper clips. Keep the plant in the sunlight for 2-5 days. Observe the difference in the colour of the covered and the uncovered portions on the leaf. Perform iodine test on leaf. Did the two parts show any difference in results? Remove the strip and expose the covered part to the sunlight for 2-3 days and do the iodine test again. Describe your observations.
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 2.
Visit a green house if there is one near your place. Observe how they raise plants. Find out how they regulate the light, water and carbon dioxide.
Answer:
Do yourself. Take the help of your teacher.

Question 3.
Try growing a sweet potato just in water. Describe your experiment and observations.
Answer:
Do yourself. Take the help of your teacher.

HBSE 7th Class Science Nutrition in Plants Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why do all living organisms need food?
Answer:
All living organisms need food for getting energy for doing physical work.

Question 2.
Define the term Nutrition.
Answer:
The process of taking or consuming and utilising food is called nutrition.

Question 3.
Define Photosynthesis?
Answer:
The process by which the green plants prepare food using carbon dioxide and water in the presence of chlorophyll and light is called photosynthesis.

Question 4.
Mention the role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis.
Answer:
The leaves have a green pigment called chlorophyll. It helps leaves to capture the energy of the sunlight. Without chlorophyll, photosynthesis will not tajte place.

Question 5.
Plants make food from water and carbon dioxide. What else is needed?
Answer:
Chlorophyll and sunlight are also needed to the plant for photosynthesis.

Question 6.
What would happen if there are no green plants on the earth?
Answer:
In the absence of green plants there will not be any living being.

Question 7.
What is the purpose of starch test?
Answer:
The confirmation of the presence of starch in the green plants also confirms that photosynthesis has taken place in the plant.

Question 8.
Name three Carnivorous animals.
Answer:
(a) Lion
(b) Tiger
(c) Leopard.

Question 9.
Name three Omnivorous animals.
Answer:
(a) Dog
(b) Cat
(c) Crow.

Question 10.
Name three Herbivorous animals.
Answer:
(a) Rabbit
(b) Deer
(c) Cow.

Question 11.
Name two Insectivorous plants.
Answer:
(a) Aldrovenda
(b) Sundew.

Question 12.
Write chemical reaction that takes place during photosynthesis.
Answer:

Question 13.
Which are the raw materials required for photosynthesis?
Answer:
The process of photosynthesis requires four raw materials:
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Water,
3. Chlorophyll
4, Light.

Question 14.
Why are green plants called autotrophs?
Answer:
Green plants can prepare their own food using inorganic substances from the environment. Hence they are called autotrophs.

Question 15.
What are heterotrophs?
Answer:
Human beings and other animals depend on plants for food. They cannot make their own food. They are called the heterotrophs.

Question 16.
What is the mode of nutrition in plants different from that of the animals?
Answer:
In plants the nutrition is autotrophic type in which anabolism takes place. While in animal, they are heterotrophs where catabolism takes place.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
‘All animals depend upon plants for food’. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Green parts of the plants have the ability to prepare their own food which is stored in their various parts. All the animals do not have such property. So they depend on plants for their food directly or indirectly.

Question 2.
Differentiate between autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition.
Answer:

Autotrophic Nutrition	Heterotrophic Nutrition
1. This type of nutrition occurs in green plants.	1. This type of nutrition is found in all living beings except green plants.
2. It prepares its own food.	2. It depends on plants directly or indirectly.
3. They prepare food in presence of sunlight.	3. They have no such condition.
4. They require carbon dioxide and water along with chlorophyll.	4. They receive prepared food.
5. Oxygen evolves during this process.	5. Only carbon dioxide is evolved during the use of food.

Question 3.
Differentiate between carnivores, Herbivores and Omnivores.
Answer:
Carnivores: Animals like lion, tiger, snake and leopard that depend on other animals for their food are called carnivores.
Herbivores: Animals like cow, goat, horse, sheep, deer and elephant that depend on plants for their food are called herbivores.
Omnivores: Omnivores are those which depend on both plants and animals for food, e.g. man, pig, hen, bear, crow etc.

Question 4.
Differentiate between saprophytes and epiphytes.
Answer:
Saprophytes: These are the organisms that depend upon dead and decaying matter for food e.g., Monotropa (a bacteria) etc. These grow during or after the rainy season.
Epiphytes: These grow on the trees but only for support. They possess green leaves and can prepare their own food by absorbing moisture from the atmosphere. They have special roots called the aerial roots for this purpose e.g. orchids.

Question 5.
What do you understand by parasite, saprophyte and symbiosis? Give one example for each.
Answer:
Parasites: Such living organisms are those which depend on other living beings for their food. They may also depend on host not only for food but also for shelter too. e.g., Lice, Leech, Bed bug.
Saprophytes: Such organisms are those which take the dead and decayed organic substances in the form of their food e.g., kite.
Symbiosis: It is the phenomenon in which two plants live together in such a way that both are beneficial for each other, e.g., Rhizobium bacteria live in the nodules of Leguminous plants.

Question 6.
Some plants are both parasite and saprophyte. Explain with examples.
Answer:
There are some plants which survive like parasite as well as saprophyte. For example, Lichen. In lichen algae which is green in colour and lives on the upper side of the plant in the sun and prepares its own food during photosynthesis. The lower part of lichen in fungus which is saprophyte in nature. Both live together in it.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe an experiment to prove that chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis.
Answer:
1. Pluck one or two leaves from Croton and Coleus plant in the evening so that they have synthesised starch.
2. Make an outline sketch of the leaf to mark green and non-green areas of the leaf.
3. Boil the leaf in alcohol over a water bath till the chlorophyll and other pigments are washed out.

4. Now keep the leaf in a petridish and add sufficient amount of iodine solution over the leaf.
Only the green portion of the leaves turn blue-black showing the presence of starch in that region, As the green portion contained chlorophyll it could photosynthesise thereby forming starch. The non-green portion of the leaf does not have chlorophyll, which is essential for phtosynthesis.

Question 2.
Describe the factors affecting the process of photosynthesis.
Answer:
Factors affecting the process of Photosynthesis:
1. Light: It is essential for the process of photosynthesis. An increase in the intensity of light increases the rate of photosynthesis.
2. Carbon dioxide: It is the source of carbon for the synthesis of organic compounds formed in, the plant.
3. Water: It is also very important for the process of photosynthesis. Lack of water decreases the rate of photosynthesis.
4. Temperature: The optimum temperature required by most of the plants for photosynthesis is 350°C.
5. Chlorophyll: It is indispensable for the process of photosynthesis. Photosynthesis does not occur in the plants that lack chlorophyll.

Question 3.
Describe an experiment to prove that light is necessary for photosynthesis.
Answer:
1. Destarch the leaves of a potted plant by placing them in total darkness for about 24-48 hours.
2. Cover tightly one of the leaves with a leaf clasp or a strip of black paper on both the surface of the leaf. Use clips or cellotape to fix the black paper.
3. Put the experimental set up in sunlight for a few hours.

4. After that pluck the leaf that was covered with black paper or leaf clasp.
5. Test the leaf for the presence of starch by boiling it in alcohol over a water bath and then putting iodine solution over it.
The part of the leaf that was covered with black paper or leaf clasp did not get sunlight and thus no photosynthesis could occur in that region, hence, starch was not formed.
The part of the leaf that was exposed to sunlight could photosynthesise and so starch was formed in that region of leaf. This shows that light is essential for the process of photosynthesis.

Nutrition in Plants Class 7  HBSE Notes

1. Carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals are components of food. These components of food are necessary for our body and are called nutrients.
2. Nutrition is the mode of taking food by an organism and its utilization by the body.
3. The mode of nutrition in which organisms make food themselves from simple substances is called autotrophic (auto = self; trophos = nourishment) nutrition. Green plants are autotrophs.
4. Animals and most other organisms take in ready-made food prepared by the plants. They are called heterotrophs (heteros = other).
5. (a) The process by which green plants prepare their own food is called photosynthesis.

(b) Photosynthesis can be summarized as follows:

(c) Photosynthesis takes place mostly in green leaves which contain green pigment, Chlorophyll inside Chloroplasts.
(d) Gaseous exchange in the leaves takes place through tiny pores called stomata
6. The mode of nutrition in organisms which derive their food from the dead and decaying organic matter is called saprophytic nutrition and such organisms are called
saprophytes.
7. The mode of nutrition in organisms which derive their food from the body of some other living organism is called parasitic nutrition. Such organisms are called parasites and other organism, from wlWh the food is derived by the parasite, is called the host.

8. In,sect,ivores are the green plants growing in marshy areas. They obtain their nutrition partly from the soil and atmosphere and partly from the insects, e.g,, pitcher plant, venus fly-trap, sundew plant and bladderwort.
9. Some organisms live together and share shelter and nutrients. This is called symbiotic relationship. For example, certain fungi live in the roots of trees. The tree provides nutrients to the fungus and, in return, receives help from it to take up water and nutrients from the soil. This association is very important for the tree.
10. In a lichen, algal and fungal partners live together and both are mutually beneficial. Algal component of a lichen is autotrophic. It provides food material to the fungal component in the lichen. In return, the fungus (heterotroph) provides shelter, water and minerals to the alga.

Haryana Board HBSE 7th Class Science Solutions

HBSE 7th Class Science Solutions in English Medium

• Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants
• Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals
• Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric
• Chapter 4 Heat
• Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts
• Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes
• Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate
• Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones
• Chapter 9 Soil
• Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms
• Chapter 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants
• Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants
• Chapter 13 Motion and Time
• Chapter 14 Electric Current and its Effects
• Chapter 15 Light
• Chapter 16 Water: A Precious Resource
• Chapter 17 Forests: Our Lifeline
• Chapter 18 Wastewater Story

HBSE 7th Class Science Solutions in Hindi Medium

• Chapter 1 पादपों में पोषण
• Chapter 2 प्राणियों में पोषण
• Chapter 3 रेशों से वस्त्र तकग
• Chapter 4 ऊष्मा
• Chapter 5 अम्ल, क्षारक और लवण
• Chapter 6 भौतिक एवं रासायनिक परिवर्तन
• Chapter 7 मौसम, जलवायु तथा जलवायु के अनुरूप जंतुओं द्वारा अनुकूल
• Chapter 8 पवन, तूफ़ान और चक्रवात
• Chapter 9 मृदा
• Chapter 10 जीवों में श्वसन
• Chapter 11 जंतुओं और पादप में परिवहन
• Chapter 12 पादप में जनन
• Chapter 13 गति एवं समय
• Chapter 14 विद्युत धारा और इसके प्रभाव
• Chapter 15 प्रकाश
• Chapter 16 जल: एक बहुमूल्य संसाधन
• Chapter 17 वन: हमारी जीवन रेखा
• Chapter 18 अपशिष्ट जल की कहानी

Haryana State Board HBSE 7th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 9 A Shirt in the Market Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 7th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 9 A Shirt in the Market

HBSE 7th Class Civics A Shirt in the Market Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What made Swapna sell the cotton to the trader instead of selling it at the Kurnool cloth market?
Answer:
The following reason made Swapna sell the cotton to the traders instead of selling at the Kurnool cloth market.

Swapna had borrowed ₹ 2,500 from the trader at a very high rate of interest to buy seeds, fertilizers, and pesticides for cultivation. At this time the trader enters an agreement with Swapna that she will sell her cotton to him. So, Swapna sells her cotton to traded instead of selling in Kurnool cloth market.

Question 2.
Describe the condition of employment as well as the wages of the workers in garment exporting factory* Do you think that the workers get a fair deal?
Answer:
(i) The workers in the garment exporting factory work at least 10 to 12 hrs. in a day but they get very low wages monthly.
(ii) Their job is not permanent; whenever the employer feels that a worker is not needed, he may be asked to leave.
(iii) Their wages are fixed according to their skills.
(iv) The highest paid among the workers are the tailors, who get maximum salary of 3,000 per month.
(v) More women are employee in these factories as helpers.
(vi) These jobs fetch him very low salary.
Now, these workers do not get fair deal.

Question 3.
Think of something common that we use. It could be sugar, tea, milk, pen, paper etc. Discuss through what chain of markets this reacts to you. Can you think of the people that help in the production or trade?
Answer:
A chain of markets links the producer to the buyer. Buying and selling takes place at every step in the chain.
Through Retailer: The producer supplies goods to retailer who sells them to the consumers:

Producers
|
Retailer
|
Customer (Buyer)

Through Wholesaler: The producer may supply goods to wholesaler in large quantity who can further sell the same in small quantities to the customers. There is no place of retailer in it.

Produce
|
Wholesaler
|
Customers

Through agent, wholesaler and retailer: The producer may also involve the agent (intermediator) in this chain of marketing.

Producer
|
Agents
|
Wholesaler
|
Customer

People from a simple worker to the main producer, agents, wholesaler, retailer all help in the production or trade.

Question 4.
Arrange the statements given below in the correct order and then fill the number in the cotton balls accordingly. The first two have been solved for you.
1. Swapna sells the cloth to the trader.
2. Customers buy these shirts in the supermarket.
3. Trader sells cotton to the ginning mill.
4. Garment exporters buy the cloth from merchants for making shirts.
5. Yarn dealers or merchants give the yarn to the weavers.
6. The exporter sells shirts to the business persons from the USA.
7. Spinning mill buys the cotton and sells yarn to the yarn dealers.
8. Weavers return with the cloth.
9. Ginning mill cleans the cotton and makes it into balls.

Answer:
1. Swapna sells the cloth to the trader.
2. Trader sells cotton to the ginning mill.
3. Ginning mill cleans the cotton and makes it into balls.
4. Spinning mill buys the cotton and sells yarn to the yarn dealers.
5. Yarn dealers or merchants give the yarn to the weavers.
6. Weavers return with the cloth.
7. Garment exporters buy the cloth from merchants for making shirts.
8. The exporter sells shirts to the business persons from the USA.
9. Customers buy these shirts in the supermarket.

Question 5.
Did Swapna get a fair price on the cotton?
Answer:
No, Swapna did not get a fair price on the cotton.

Question 6.
Why did the trader pay Swapna a low price?
Answer:
The trader paid Swapna a low price because she had borrowed ₹ 2500 at the time of cropping season at high rate of interest.

Question 7.
Where db you think larger farm would sell cotton? How is their situation better than Swapna?
Answer:
Larger farmer would prefer to sell their product in wholesale market. Their situation is better from Swapna because Swapna cannot sell the product in wholesale market. She has to sell it through trader and she does not get price for her product.

Question 8.
You might have co-operatives in your areas. It could be in a milk provision, paddy etc. Find out for whose benefits they were set up.
Answer:
These co-operatives have been set up for the benefit of the local people of the area especially for the poor farmers.

Question 9.
What are the following people doing at the Erode cloth market-merchants, weavers, exporters?
Answer:
Merchants: Merchants are getting the woven cloth from the weavers after paying them wages for weaving cloth them from.
Weavers: The weavers spend long hours working on looms and they work for wages.
Exporters: Exporters arrange the cloth for exports.

Question 10.
In what ways are weavers dependent on cloth merchants?
Answer:
Weavers are dependent on cloth merchants because:
The cloth merchants give them thread and they weave cloth for them from where they earn their living.

Question 11.
Why do you think more women are employed in the Impex garment factory? Discuss.
Answer:
More women are employed in the Impex garments factory because:
(a) They do the work of thread cutting, buttoning, ironing and packaging more patiently.
(b) These jobs have the lowest wages and women are ready to work for the lowest wages.
(c) They do not raise disputes.

Question 12.
The shirt shows the profit made by the business person, and the various costs that he had to pay. Find out from the diagram below, what cost price includes.

Answer:
The cost price includes:
Purchase (₹ 200) + Storage 100) + advertising (₹ 300)
= ₹ 600.

Question 13.
What are the demands of foreign buyers made on the garment export? Why do the garment exporters agree to these demands?
Answer:
The foreign buyer demands the following from the supplier:
(a) the lowest prices
(b) high standards of equality
(c) prompt delivery of goods
The garment exporter agrees to fulfill the demand of foreign buyers because he hopes to get a bulk order.

Question 14.
What are the reasons that the business person is able to make a huge profit in the market?
Answer:
The business person is able to make huge profit in the market because:
(a) He sells his shirts to high income people who do not ask for the prices.
(b) He tries to meet the latest demands of the customers.

HBSE 7th Class Civics A Shirt in the Market Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who is Swapna and what does she do?
Answer:
Swapna is a small farmer in Kurnool and she grows cotton.

Question 2.
What is putting out system?
Answer:
The arrangement between the merchant and the weavers is known as putting out system.

Question 3.
To whom does the Erode merchant supply the cotton cloth?
Answer:
The Erode merchant supplies the cotton cloth to a garment exporting factory near Delhi.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about Erode’s cloth market in brief.
Answer:
Erode is a bi-weekly cloth market in Tamil Nadu. It is one of the largest cloth markets in the world. A large variety of clothes are sold in this market.

Question 2.
What is the role of merchant in making the clothes?
Answer:
The merchant distributes work among the weavers based on the orders he has received for cloth. For this, he buys the yarn and gives to the weavers with instructions about the kind of cloth that is to be made.

Question 3.
What is the role of market in the lives of people related to cloth?
Answer:
The market offers people, related to cloth, opportunities for work and to be able to sell things that they grow or produce. It could be the farmer selling cotton or weaver producing cloth.

Question 4.
Why have the poor people to depend on rich persons?
Answer:
The poor have people to depend on the rich and the powerful persons for loans, raw materials and marketing of their goods, and most often for employment.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do the weaver’s cooperatives work? How are they helpful for the weavers?
Answer:
In weavers’ cooperative:
(a) The weavers form a group and take up certain activities collectively.
(b) They procure yarn from the yarn dealer and distribute it among the weavers.
(c) The co-operative also does the marketing.

They are helpful for the weavers because:
(i) the role of merchant is reduced and weavers get a fair price on the cloth.
(ii) The government also helps the cooperatives by buying cloth from them at a reasonable price.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Impex garment factory.
Answer:

• The Impex garment factory has 70 workers.
• Most of them are women. Most of these workers are employed on a temporary basis.
• The employer can remove the workers when he does not need them.
• Workers wages are fixed according to their skills.
• The highest paid among workers are the tailors who get about ₹ 3,000 per month.
• Women are employed at the lowest paid wages for the jobs like thread cutting, buttoning, ironing and packaging.

A Shirt in the Market Class 7 HBSE Notes

• Ginning Mill: A factory where seeds are removed from cotton balls. The cotton is pressed into bales to be sent for spinning into thread.
• Exporter: A person who sells goods abroad.
• Profit: The amount that is left or gained from earnings after deducting all the costs. If the costs are more than the earnings, it would lead to a loss.

Haryana State Board HBSE 7th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 10 Struggles for Equality Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 7th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 10 Struggles for Equality

HBSE 7th Class Civics Struggles for Equality Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you think is meant by the expression ‘power over the ballot box? Discuss.
Answer:
The expression ‘power over the ballot box means the power to vote. Every adult (a person of 18 years or above) in India has the equal right to vote during elections. This right has been used by people to elect or replace their representatives.

Question 2.
What issue is the Tawa Matsya Sangh (TMS) fighting for?
Answer:
The Tawa Matsya Sangh (TMS) is fighting for the rights of displaced forest dwellers of the Satpura forest in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 3.
Why did the villagers set up this organisation?
Answer:
The villagers set up this organisation to fight for the right, to fish catch in the ‘Tawa Reservoir’.

Question 4.
Do you think that the large- scale participation of villagers has contributed to the success of the TMS? Write two lines on why you think so.
Answer:
Yes, the large-scale participation of the villagers has contributed to the success of the TMS. It shows that when people are united, they can successfully fight for their rights. It is the power of the voice of the people in a democracy which ultimately wins. The committee of government, recommended their right to catch fish in the Tawa Reservoir.

Question 5.
What role does the Constitution play in people’s struggle for inequality?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution plays a great role in People’s struggle for inequality.

• The Indian Constitution is a living document which recognises the equality to all persons.
• Movements and struggle for equality in India continuously refer to the Indian Constitution to make their point about equality and justice for all.
• The Constitution highlights the challenges to equality in democracy like (a) privatisation of health services in the country, the increasing control that business houses exert on media, the low value given to women and their work.
• Whenever any Fundamental Right is violated, we can go to the court.

Question 6.
Read the poem on page 120 NCERT. Why grains rots in godowns while I don’t even get a fistful of rice. What does the poet mean when he says, “My hunger has the right to know?”
Answer:
It means we have plenty of grains stored in godown but of hoarders and merchants put the poor people are still not getting a single bit of rice. They are still facing hunger.

HBSE 7th Class Geography Struggles for Equality Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by equality during elections?
Answer:
Equality during elections means that all adults in India have the equal right to vote.

Question 2.
Why are people displaced?
Answer:
When dams are built or forest areas are declared sanctuaries for animals, a large number of people are displaced.

Question 3.
When did the government give the rights for fishing to private contractors?
Answer:
In 1994, the government gave the rights for fishing in the Tawa reservoir to private contractors.

Question 4.
Why are people discriminated in India?
Answer:
People are discriminated on the basis of a person’s religion, caste and sex.

Question 5.
Why is a dam built?
Answer:
A dam is built across a river at sites where one can collect a lot of water.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What factors are considered significant in treating people unequality in India?
Answer:
(i) Discrimination on the basis of a person’s religion, caste and sex are the significant factors for- why people are treated unequally in India.
(ii) For example, Omprakash Valmiki was forced to sweep the school yard because he was a Dalit, Ansaris were not given apartment on lease because they wepe Muslims.

Question 2.
What were the effects of displacement of poor people in urban area?
Answer:

• In urban area basis (localities) in which poor people live are often uprooted. As a result, some of these poor people are relocated to areas outside the city.
• Its consequences are that Poor people’s work as well as their children’s schooling is severely disrupted.
• It is because of the distance from the outskirt of the city to these locations.

Question 3.
What does the Indian Constitution say about the equality?
Answer:
(i) The Indian Constitution recognises all Indians as equal before the law.
(ii) It also states that no person can be discriminated on the basis of their religion, sex, caste or income and wealth.

Question 4.
People’s lives in India are highly unequal. Discuss.
Answer:

• The man who sells juice does not have the resources to compete with all of the major companies who sell branded drinks through expensive advertising.
• Thus, poverty and the lack of resources are considered a basic reason in making so many people’s lives in India unequal.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is the Indian Constitution called a living document?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is called a living document because :

• Indian Constitution recognizes the equality of all persons.
• Indian Constitution has a real meaning in our lives.
• The foundation of all movements for justice and the inspiration and for all the poetry and songs is the recognition of equality among people. The Indian Constitution recognises of equality among people.
• Movements and struggles for equality in India continuously refer to the Indian Constitution to make their point about equality and justice to all.

Question 2.
How does the Right to Equality establish the Social Equality in India? Do you think it is practically achieved in our country?
Answer:
Article 15 provides that the state shall not discriminate against citizens on grounds of religion, sex, caste, colour. The same article provides that all the citizen shall have access to the public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment etc.

However, the right to equality given under Constitution is not practised in reality. The increasing privatisation of health services and the neglect of government hospitals have made it difficult for most poor people to get good quality healthcare do not have the resources to afford expensive private health services.

Struggles for Equality Class 7 HBSE Notes

• Equality : A state when everyone should be given equal opportunities for their all round development.
• Scheduled Caste : Certain castes which are linked with the Govt, of India due to their backwardness.
• Social Justice: A condition in which there should be equality of opportunity of progress for every citizen of the country without any discrimination.
• Constitution: Fundamental law and principles according to which a country is governed.
• Economic Justice: It is a condition where all the citizens are guaranteed a decent standard of living without any economic disparity.
• Welfare State: A system in which the government provides free social services like health and education to help the old, the unemployed, and the sick.
• Basti: Area around the urban areas, where poor people live in Jhuggi-Jhopfi.

Haryana State Board HBSE 7th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 8 Markets Around Us Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 7th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 8 Markets Around Us

HBSE 7th Class Civics Markets Around Us Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In what ways is a hawker different from shop owners?
Answer:

A Hawker	A Shop Owner
(i) A hawker does not have a permanent shop and cannot be relied on for our needs.	(i) A shop owner has a permanent shop.
(ii) Quality is not guaranteed.	(ii) Quality is guaranteed.
(iii) The buyer and seller usually do not know each other.	(iii) The buyer and seller usually know each other.
(iv) Goods can’t be provided on credit.	(iv) Goods can be1 provided on credit

Question 2.
Compare and contrast a weekly market and a shopping complex on the following:

Market	Kinds of goods sold	Prices of good	Sellers	Buyers
Weekly Market
Shopping Complex

Answer:

	Weekly Market	Shopping Complex
Kinds of goods sold	Low-quality, Low priced goods	Good-Quality goods/Branded goods
Price of goods	Low	High
Sellers	Hawkers, Vendors	Shop owners, Multiplex owners businessmen
Buyers	Lower Middle-Class	Upper Middle-Class and High Class people

Question 3.
Explain how a chain of markets is formed. What purpose does it serve?
Answer:
A chain of markets is the interlinking of a producer, wholesaler and retailer in the following ways:
(i) We don’t buy goods directly from the factory or farm, where the production takes place.
(ii) The people in between the producer and the final consumer is the trader.
(iii) The wholesaler buys goods in large quantities and sells them to traders.
(iv) The trader who finally sells this to consumer is the retailer.
Goods travel to us though a chain of markets which we were not aware of this allows good-quality of goods to reach us in an easy, accessible and feasible way.

Question 4.
‘All persons have equal rights to visit any shop in a market place.’ Do you think this is true of shops with expensive products? Explain with examples.
Answer:
No, it is not true for shops with expensive products. This is because the companies producing branded products . through shops in urban markets and at times, through special show rooms. Fewer people can afford to buy branded goods and hence rights are restricted.

For example:
Sujata and Kavita who entered a shop that was selling branded readymade clothes were stared at by the security guard. They could not even buy a dress since most of them were expensive.

Question 5.
‘Buying and selling can take place without going to a marketplace.’ Explain the statement with the help of example.
Answer:
One does not have to go to the markets to purchase goods. You can place order for a variety of things through the phone and these days through the internet as well, and then the goods are delivered to your home. In clinics and nursing homes and likewise, sales representatives are also engaged in the selling of goods. Thus buying and selling take place in different markets, not necessarily to the ones we need to visit.
For example: Many sites on the net today.

Question 6.
Why do people go to a weekly market?
Answer:
People go to a weekly market because:
(a) They can fulfill their everyday requirements.
(b) Many things in the market are available at cheap rates.
(c) Almost all things are available at one place.

Question 7.
Who are the sellers in a weekly market? Why don’t we find big businessmen in weekly market?
Answer:
Sellers are small traders in a weekly market who store their things at home and sell them at cheap rates in the market. We don’t find big businessmen in weekly markets because here low-quality low-priced goods are sold. The goods are not branded. Big Businessmen usually deal in designer products and branded goods that are well- promoted though advertising and incur them a lot of profit. This is done through permanent urban markets or special showrooms.

Question 8.
Explain with an example how people bargain in a weekly market. Can you think of an example where the bargain would be unfair?
Answer:
Weekly markets also have a large number of shops sellings the same goods which means there is competition between them. If some trader were to charge a higher price, people can bargain and bring the price down. The bargain would be unfair if the shopkeeper has not kept any margin for his product.

Question 9.
Why did Sujata carry a notebook? Do you think this system is useful? Can there be problems?
Answer:
Sujata carried a notebook along with her so that the amount of money of purchase could be noted down. This bond of trust allowed Sujata to pay on credit. However this could create the following problems:
(а) insecurity for the seller (if the buyer is unknown)
(b) a sense of doubt.

Question 10.
What are the different kinds of shops that find in your neighbourhood? What do you purchase from them.
Answer:
There are many shops in a neighbourhood; i.e.
(a) Dairy
Goods bought: milk, cottage cheese, curd.

(b) Grocery
Goods bought: fruits and vegetables

(c) Stationery
Goods bought: pens, pencils, charts, erasers

(d) Eatables
Goods bought: cooked snacks

(e) Bakery
Goods bought: baked goods like cakes, pastries

(f) Chemist
Goods bought: medicines.

Question 11.
Why are goods sold in permanent shops costlier than those sold in the weekly markets or by roadside hawkers?
Answer:
The goods sold in permanent shops are costlier than those sold in weekly market or by roadside hawkers because they provide more facilities at ease to its consumers. They are useful in many ways:

• easily accessible
• familiar relation between the buyer and seller
• goods on credit.

Question 12.
Why do you think the guard wanted to stop Kavita and Sujata from entering the shopWhat would you say if someone stops you from entering a shop in the market?
Answer:
The guard wanted to stop Kavita and Sujata from entering the shop because by demeanour, they seemed to be of a low economic background and would to be able to afford the expenses of the shop.

I would question my right if somebody stops me from entering a shop as it would be sincere violation of my dignity.

Question 13.
Why do people not bargain in shops located in malls whereas they bargain in weekly markets?
Answer:
Branded goods are expensive often promoted by advertising and are of a better qualities. Hence, people sustain a skeptical nature of bargaining in these large urban markets on special showroom. Only the people who afford to buy these goods generally visit these shops.

Question 14.
How do you think your neighbourhood shop gets its goods? Find out and explain with example.
Answer:
A neighbourhood shop is generally controlled by a retailer who gets its goods from the wholesaler.
For example, the vegetable wholesale trader will not buy few kilos of vegetables from farmers but in large quantities. These will be then sold to our neighbourhood grocer. Buying and selling take place between traders and goods shall reach us.

Question 15.
Why is a wholesale trader necessary?
Answer:
The producer, on its own cannot send its goods to the final consumers or retailing shop. It is with the help of a wholesale trader that goods reach faraway places. It is from here that a retailer buys the goods so that it reaches the final consumers.

HBSE 7th Class Civics Markets Around Us Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who are in between the producer and the final consumers?
Answer:
Wholesalers, distributors and retailers are in between the producer and the final consumer.

Question 2.
Write any one advantage of weekly market?
Answer:
Most of the things of our daily and common use are available at one place in weekly market at a cheaper rate.

Question 3.
Where are shopping complexes found?
Answer:
Shopping complexes are found in the urban areas, cities, etc.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about weekly market?
Answer:
(i) A weekly market is held on a specific day of week.
(ii) It does not have permanent shops.
(iii) Traders set up their shops for the day and then close them up in the evening.

Question 2.
What are the extra expenditure incurred in permanent shop that are not incurred in the weekly market?
Answer:
There are various expenditures incurred in permanent shops which are not in weekly market. For example:
(a) They have to pay rent, electricity and sometimes fees to the Government.
(b) They have to pay wages to their workers.

Question 3.
What do you know about mills?
Answer:
The large multi-stores air-conditioned buildings with shops on different floors are known as malls. These malls have both branded and non-branded goods and promote them by advertising.

Question 4.
Explain the meaning of chain of markets.
Answer:
A chain of markets is a series of markets inter connected in links or chains because products pass from one country to another.

Question 5.
‘Internet has brought a revolution in the availability of markets.’ Do you agree? Explain.
Answer:
Today we can place order for a variety of things on the Internet and the goods are delivered at your home. This allows easy availability, accessibility and economic feasibility of goods. Internet always or often does offer exciting deals.

Question 6.
Explain who is the most benefitted in the Chain of Markets.
Answer:
A retailer is the most benefitted in the chain of markets since he sells the goods at the highest price and earns more profit than the wholesaler.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the markets we might be unaware of? Give two detailed examples.
Answer:
Some of the markets that act as imputs to an industry and help in the formation of products that finally reach us are markets that we night be unaware of these are feeder markets whose goods we don’t require and hence we can’t recognise themselves.

Two examples for the same are given below:
(i) We may want to acquire the food crop or food item sold by a retailer but we may not be interested in knowing the market from where the farmer sought his production needs (seeds, fertilizer etc.).

(ii) A car factory purchases engines, cars, gears, petrol tanks, are but we are interested in only buying the product i.e., the car.
However, it is also true that the producers recognise these shops.

Question 2.
What do you know about the market and goods, which are sold and bought in but we don’t use directly? Explain about with examples.
Answer:
There are markets that we may not be aware of. In these markets a variety of goods are bought and sold in large numbers that we don’t use directly. For example, a car factory purchases engine, gears, petrol tanks, axles, wheels, etc. from v various other factories. They use them for making car, a final product that we use directly.

Markets Around Us Class 7 HBSE Notes

• Chain of Markets: A series of markets that are connected like links in a chain because product pass from one market to another.
• Mall: This is an enclosed shopping space. This is usually a large building with many floors that has shops, restaurants, at any time, even a cinema theatre. These shops most often sell branded products.
• Retailers: The trader who finally sells goods to these consumers.
• Weekly Market: These markets are not daily markets but are to be found at a particular place on one or maybe two days of the week. These markets most often sell everything that a household needs ranging from vegetables to clothes or utensils.
• Wholesale This refers to buying or selling in large quantities. Most products, including vegetables, fruits, and flowers have special wholesale markets.

Haryana State Board HBSE 7th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 7 Understanding Advertising Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 7th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 7 Understanding Advertising

HBSE 7th Class Civics Understanding Advertising Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you understand by the word brand? List two reasons why building brands is central to advertising.
Answer:
The term “brand’ refers to the special identification or name that is associated with a product. Building a brand is central to advertising because:
(a) The product is signed or stamped by a particular name.
(b) It differentiates it from other products available in the market.
For example: The buyers of ‘TRIMURTI POP’ know that they are buying a guaranteed product with an ISI mark.

Question 2.
Choose two of your favourite prints advertisement. Now look at each of these and answer the following questions.
(a) What visuals and text is being used in these advertisements to attract my attention?
(b) What values are being promoted in these advertisements?
(c) Who is this advertisement speaking to and who is it leaving out?
(d) If you could not afford the brand that is being advertised how would you feel?

Question 3.
Can you explain two ways in which you think advertising affects issues of equality in a democracy?
Answer:
Yes, the two ways in which you think advertising affects issues of equality in a democracy are :
(а) In a democracy, all the people are equal and should be able to lead a life of dignity, advertising tends to promote a certain lack of respect for the poor people. The branded goods are costly and through advertisements, their image is created which appeals elite people. Poor people cannot afford them.

(b) There is a question of inequality at market front. Only large companies can.

Question 4.
Making an advertisement requires a lot of creativity. Let us imagine a situation in which a manufacturer has just made a new watch. She says that she want to sell this watch to school children. She comes to your class and asks you all to create a brand name as well as an advertisement for the watch. Divide the class into small groups and each group create an advertisement for this watch, share it with class.
Answer:
This is a group activity, for your help here clues are given:
(a) Write the slient features of the watch.
(b) Warrantee period.
(c) Rate of discount.
(d) Also sketch the diagram of wrist and hand watches.
Try to solve it in your class room by divid¬ing the class in four/six groups.

Look at the two advertisements and fill in the table.

	Top Taste Daal	Care Soap
What are the advertisements selling?
How do they describe the product?
What is the text trying to say?	Guests should be served this.
What do the pictures convey?		Love of a mother
Would you want to buy these products after seeing the advertisement ?

Answer:

What are the advertisements selling?	Top Taste Daal	Care Soap
	Daal	Care Soap
How do they describe the product?	The guests are served best in the form of Top Taste Daal
What is the text trying to say?	Guests should be served Top Taste Daal
What do the pictures convey?	Serve your guests the best
Would you want to buy these products after seeing the advertisement?	Yes	Love of a mother

Question 2.

(A) What do you think is the target audience for the social advertise¬ments below? (NCERT Page 88)
Answer:
(a) Disabled Children.
(b) Persons crossing unmanned railway crossing.

(B) What is the message that each social advertisement is trying to get across? (NCERT Page 88)
Answer:
(a) Freedom is the birthright of disabled children too and they have right to education.
(b) Railways run faster than us. So we should not cross the railway crossing when the train is coming.

HBSE 7th Class Civics Understanding Advertising Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is advertising?
Answer:
The promotion of saleable goods, services and ideas by a reputed sponsor is termed as advertising.

Question 2.
Which was the commonest means of advertising in ancient times?
Answer:
‘Word of Mouth’ was the ; commonest form of advertising practised in ancient times.

Question 3.
What makes mass selling possible?
Answer:
Advertising makes mass selling possible.

Question 4.
When and where did weekly newspaper advertising begin?
Answer:
Weekly advertising began in England in 17th century.

Question 5.
Name two products which were promoted by early print advertising?
Answer:
Books and medicines.

Question 6.
Name four kinds of advertising.
Answer:
(a) Political advertising
(b) Public advertising
(c) Commercial advertising
(d) Social advertising.

Question 7.
Define ‘branding’.
Answer:
‘Branding’ means stamping a product with a particular name or sign. This is done in order to differentiate it from other products in the market.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why do you think the manufacturers of the soap and the daal gave their products specific names?
Answer:
The manufacturers of the daal and the soap gave their products specific names like “Show you child you care” and “Top Taste Daal” respectively so that they can draw our attention. These names also describe the products, daal and soap positively so that we may become convinced and interested to buy them.

Question 2.
What role do advertisements play in our lives?
Answer:
We mostly buy branded products under the influence of advertisements. Their branded products influence the ways in which we think about ourselves, our friends and our family.

Question 3.
What is the role of advertising in society?
Answer:
(a) Advertising helps to sell different products!n the market.
(b) It create airurge for change of lifestyle and uplifting social status.
(c) Because of ever-increasing number of goods and advertisements, things which were considered as luxury are now a vital necessity of life

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between commercial and social advertisement.
Answer:

Commercial Advertising	Social Advertising
(i) Commercial advertising is intended to promote the sale of advertised product by appealing directly to the buyer.	(i) Social advertising is meant to promote social issues. It includes social issues like family planning, health awareness, communal harmony, help for the victims.
(ii) Commercial advertising is directly linked with the consumers.	(ii) Social advertising is linked to the society at large.
(iii) Commercial advertising is done through radio, newspapers, magazines and television;	(iii) Various social agencies, social service institutions and organisations take the responsibility of social advertisements.
(iv) Commercial advertisement may not have any goods social effect.	(iv) Social advertising has good effect on the society.

Question 2.
What are the basic requirements of good advertising?
Answer:
The basic requirements of good advertising are:

• It should be well-designed in conformity/with the law and regulations of the country.
• It should not go against morality.
• It should not be against the religious susceptibilities of the people.
• In the case of commercial advertising everything related to the product should be provided accurately.
• It should not have derogatory references to another.

Understanding Advertising Class 7 HBSE Notes

• Product: This refers to a thing or service that has been made for being sold in the market.
• Consumer: This refers to the person for whom the goods or products have been made and who pays money to buy and use them.
• Brand: This refers to a special identification or name that is associated with a product such identification is created through the process of advertising.
• To influence: This refers to the power to change what someone believes or does.
• LifeStyle: Lifestyle refers to people’s lives being identified by the products they own, the clothes they wear, the places they live in, etc.

Haryana State Board HBSE 7th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 6 Understanding Media Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 7th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 6 Understanding Media

HBSE 7th Class Civics Understanding Media Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In what ways does the media play an important role in democracy?
Answer:
Media plays an important role in democracy in the following ways:
(a) On the basis of media’s information citizens can learn how the government works.
(b) Public becomes aware of the fraudulent practices and the corruption is curbed.
(c) Media helps in forming opinion of the masses.
(d) The media also announces the opinion of the public about certain issues, problems.

Question 2.
Can you give this diagram a title? What do you understand about the link between media and big business from this diagram?

Answer:
Title to the diagram:
Role of Media for Business Houses
Link between media and Big Business Houses:
(i) Media helps in advertisement for products of big business houses.
(ii) Media helps business houses to know about the detailed programmes of government.
(iii) Big Business houses come to know about the needs, wants of people and changing trends in their lines of products.
(iv) Media gets business through big business houses.
(v) Some popular media groups are owned by big business houses, e.g., Hindustan Times by Birla group. Hence, media and big business houses are complementary to each other.

Question 3.
You have read about the ways in which media, sets the agenda. What kind of effect does this have in a democracy? Provide two examples in support of your view.
Answer:
Media ‘sets agenda’ because media has its great importance of its own. It is the media through which the public can raise voices. Media decides which subjects to highlight and hence ‘sets the agenda’.
For example:
(i) News of major public events is highlighted.
(ii) The visit of a famous political party is highlighted.
(iii) Alarming level of adulterations in food items is highlighted.

Question 4.
As a class project, decide to focus on a particular news topic and cut out stories from different newspapers on this.-Also watch the coverage of this topic on TV news. Compare two newspapers and write down the similarity and differences in their reports. It might help to ask the following questions:
(a) What information is this article providing?
(b) What information is it leaving out?
(c) From whose point of view is the article being written?
(d) Whose point of view is being left and why?
Answer:
I. Hindustan Times

India fourth-largest market: Domino’s

HT Correspondent
[email protected]

New Delhi:
Jubilant Food Works, which operates the Domino’s Pizza chain and Dunkin’ Donuts in India, on Thursday said India is Domino’s fourth-biggest overseas market, after the US, UK and Mexico.

“In the global Domino’s system, we are amongst the top four countries in terms of absolute number of stores,” said Sliyam S Bhartia, chairman and Hari S Bhartia, co¬chairman, Jubilant Food Works Ltd., while inaugurating the food major’s 500th store at Rajinder Nagar, Delhi.

The chain, which sells 70% of all India’s home- delivery pizzas and has 55% share of the organised pizza markets, is betting on products that cater to Indian tastes to continue its aggressive growth. “There are a number of tweaked products in the pipeline to woo the taste buds of the Indian consumer. Our aim is to continue innovation at reasonable price points,” said Richard Allison, executive vice¬president, Bomino’s Pizza International.

Betting of India
500 Number of Domino’s stores in India 30% Sales growth in one store over the fiscal year 2010-11 ‘ 55% Market share in the organised pizza market. 70% Market share in the pizza home delivery segment

From left:
Hari S Bhartia, co-chairman, Jubilant Food Works Ltd; Ritchard Allison, executive vice-president, International Dominos Worldwide and Shyam S Bhartia, chairman, Jubilant Food Works Ltd in New Delhi on Thursday.

(a) This article provides information that India is the fourth largest market of Dominos-after the US, UK and Mexico.
(b) It is leaving out information on what other products Dominos want to introduce in India.
(c) The article is being written from the point of view of those who want to enter new business venture with Dominos and the consumers.
(d) The point of view of the workers at Dominos is left out.
This is so because it is market-oriented.

India fastest growing market for Domino’s
Dipti Jain / TNN

New Delhi:
Despite a palpable slowdown in the eating out industry across the globe, India has emerged as the fastest growing market for Domino’s outpacing US, which is the largest market for the pizza chain major across 73 countries where it has presence. India recorded an annual growth rate of nearly 50% for Domino’s for the fifth consecutive year.

“India has been performing fabulously for us. We are seeing some pressure in western Europe especially, where it has been a very tough economic year for us,” Domino’s executive vice-president (international) Richard E Allison Jr said. India, which accounts for 5% of Domino’s global sales, is among the top five markets for the US based company. In terms of store counts too, India has registered the highest growth among all other markets.

The brand added 75 stores in India in calendar year 2011 taking the total number to 500. It is planning to increase the number by 100 in the current financial year. The company, which currently competes with other food chains such as Pizza Hut and Papa John’s, commands around 55% share of the Rs. 1,800 crore pizza industry in the country.

With only 10-15% of the industry organized, Allison is optimistic on increasing its market share by increased accessibility to consumers. The company will invest over Rs. 150 crore in India this financial year, up from the Rs. Ill crore it had invested last year. Like most other companies in the quick service restaurant space, Domino’s too reported a decline in the same stores sales growth in the April to June quarter to 22.3% from 36.7% in the corresponding period last year.

With consumer spending getting more discretionary, the brand has pushed price hikes, which normally happen in the first quarter, to the second quarter of the current fiscal year.

The company is also focusing on value offerings in a bid to widen its consumer base in the country. “We have to think about the product pricing always. The game is all about value pricing. We are only focusing on increasing our market share in India.”
(a) This article is providing information on the expanding share of Indian market for Dominos.
(b) This article is leaving information on the other big markets (except US) for share of Dominos.
(c) This article is written from the view of producers and consumers of Dominos
(d) This article leaves the point of view of the workers working at Indian Domino outlets.

Activity Based Questions:

Question 1.
Look at the collage and list the six kinds of media that you see
Answer:
• Radio
• Television
• DVD
• Computer and Internet
• Newspapers, magazines
• Periodicals

Question 2.
Ask older members of your family about what they used to listen to on the radio when there was no TV around. Find out from them when the first TV came to your area. When was cable TV introduced?
Answer:
• Older members of our family used to listen to news on radio and old Hindi songs.
• The first TV came to our area in 1962.
• Cable TV was introduced in 1984.

Question 3.
How many people in your neighbourhood use the internet?
Answer:
Many people.

Question 4.
List three things that you know about some other part of the world from watching television.
Answer:
•International Cricket matches.
• Fashion-shows
• Disasters-Natural or Man-made.

Question 5.
Can you list three different products that are advertised during your favourite TV programme?
Answer:
• Vodafone
• Surf excel
• Brooke-Bond Tea.

Question 6.
Take a newspaper and count the number of advertisements in it. Some people say that newspapers have too many advertisements? Do you think this is true and why?
Answer:
• Hindustan Times-70
Some people correctly say that newspapers have many advertise¬ments but it in important because:
(i) Many advertisements bring down the cost of the newspaper to the generally public and it becomes widely affordable.

Crackdown on polluting factories

Closure of factories causes unrest

Protestors block roads and disrupt traffic Violent protests by owners and workers brought the city to a standstill today. People getting to work could not do so on time because of huge traffic jams. The owners and workers are protesting the government’s decision to close down polluting factory units. Although the government did take this decision rather hastily, the protestors have known for quite some time that their units are not legal. Crackdown on polluting factories Protestors block roads and disrupt traffic Moreover the levels of pollution in the city will be greatly reduced by this closure. Mr. Jain a wellknown figure in the city said, “With our city gradually becoming Indies’s new business hub, ills important lhat it be a dean and green city. Polluting factories should be moved. The factory owners arid workers should accept the relocation being offered by the government instead of protesting

• Daily News Service The closure of one lakh factories in the city’s residential areas is likely to become a seriGus issue. On Monday, thousandsoffartoryownersandworkers took to the streets to strongly protest this closure. They said that their livelihoods would be lost. They say that the fault lies with the municipal corporation because it continued to issue licenses for new factories to be set up in residential areas.They also say that there were no adequate relocation efforts. The owners and workers plan a one-day city bandh to protest against this closure, Mr. Sharma, one of the factory owners said, . “Ttegoyernmentsaysithatithasdone a loHolteiate us. But the areas they have sent us to have JIO facilities and have not been developed tor the last live years.”

Question 7.
Are the above stories in the two newspapers given above similar? And if not, why not? What, in your view, are the similarities and differences?
Answer:
Both the news relate to the closure of factories in the residential areas. However, the News of India reports about the nuisance created by the protesters. It is reported that they disrupt traffic and continuously pollute the city. The Indian Daily reports about the plight of lot of workers who lose jilieir livelihoods because of closure “of factories.

Question 8.
If you read the story in the News of India, what would you think about the issue?
Answer:
The government’s decision about closure of factories is apt because it would reduce the pollution. The angry owners and workers protest the decision and cause unrest.

Question 9.
Do you think it is important to know both sides of the story?
Answer:
It is important to know both sides of the story because only then we shall be able to develop our own views and give judgements

Question 10.
What is the consequence of the Media, “setting the agenda by reporting on the fashion week rather than the slum demolitions?”
Answer:
By report on the fashion week, the media will attract more readers and they will earn more money.

Question 11.
Can you think of an issue that does not seem important to you because it is never featured in the media?
Answer:
Inflationary prices of essential commodities.

HBSE 7th Class Civics Understanding Media Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is media?
Answer:
All means of communication are collectively referred to as media.

Question 2.
Why are newspapers called print media?
Answer:
The newspapers are called print media, because these newspapers use print technology in reporting their news, etc.

Question 3.
What is censorship?
Answer:
When the government prevents media from making a news or programme or their parts public it is called censorship.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a balanced report? What is the basic requirement of a balanced report?
Answer:
A balanced report is one which discusses all points of view of a particular story and then leaves it to readers to make up their mind.
The basic requirement of a balanced report is an independent media. No one should tell the media what is to be included and what should not be included in the report.

Question 2.
Why are most newspapers not able to provide a balanced story before the readers?
Answer:
Most newspapes are not able to provide a balanced story before readers because most of media are controlled by big business houses in India. Many business houses, provide advertisement to the newspapers. How can they publish anything against them when they run at their expenses.

Question 3.
How can the credibility of the media be maintained?
Answer:
The credibility of media can be maintained if. media does not resort to unethical means for raising its circulation. Media should not try to make money through a sting operation. The media should also not conduct trials and pronounce people guilty or innocent since it is not their job.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the role of TV in our lives?
Answer:
(i) At present we can not imagine our lives without TV. It has made us the members of the world community.
(ii) It allows us to view news and entertainment channels across the world through satellites and cables.
(iii) We can see live telecast of any event, natural calamities, etc., happening in one corner while sitting in other corner of the world.
Thus, the TV has changed the world into a small village.

Understanding Media Class 7 HBSE Notes

• Publish: This refers to news-reports, articles, interviews, stories, etc. that are printed in newspapers, magazines and books for a wide audience to read.
• Censorship: This refers to the powers that government has to disallow media from publishing or showing certain stories.
• Broadcast: This, here, refers to a TV or radio programme that is widely transmitted.
• Public Protest: When a large number of people come together and openly state their opposition to some issue. Organizing a rally, starting a signature campaign, blocking roads, etc. are some of the ways in which this is done.
• Media: Media is the plural form of medium which means ways through which the issues are published and propagated through various means, like newspapers, magazines, radio, television, periodicals, internet satellites, etc.